Dingbat
2017-05-31 07:28:47 UTC
What I remember Hume saying is that other Popes pronounced Latin as if it were
Italian whereas Pope John Paul II had a more conservative pronunciation.
Is a Romance language speaker at a disadvantage in pronouncing Latin
correctly by virtue of getting influenced by their native language because
it is a descendant of Latin?
IOW, was JP2 at an advantage because his native language was Polish which is
not a Romance language and thereby didn't influence his Latin pronunciation?
An article on the late Basil Hume:
http://www.independent.co.uk/arts-entertainment/obituary-cardinal-basil-hume-1100741.html
Italian whereas Pope John Paul II had a more conservative pronunciation.
Is a Romance language speaker at a disadvantage in pronouncing Latin
correctly by virtue of getting influenced by their native language because
it is a descendant of Latin?
IOW, was JP2 at an advantage because his native language was Polish which is
not a Romance language and thereby didn't influence his Latin pronunciation?
An article on the late Basil Hume:
http://www.independent.co.uk/arts-entertainment/obituary-cardinal-basil-hume-1100741.html